APPSC GROUP 2 Exam 2017 Complete Questions with Answer Key PDF Download

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APPSC GROUP 2 QUESTION PAPER 2017

1. For which area of study in Economics,
did Oliver Hart win the Nobel Prize in 2016?
(1) Theory of Foreign Trade
(2) Analysis of Economic Growth
(3) Study of Inflation
(4) Contribution to Contract Theory
 
2. Nobel Peace Prize, 2016 was awarded to a ?
(1) Non-Governmental Organisation
(2) Missionary
(3) Head of a State
(4) Rebel party leader
 
3. Nobel Prize, 2016, in Medicine was awarded for work in the area of ?
(1) Malaria therapy
(2) Infections by parasites
(3) Infections by viruses
(4) Cell autophagy mechanism
 
4. As per the awards given by Flightstats for 2016, winner of first place as best performing airline for being on time is ?
(1) Singapore Airlines
(2) Quantas
(3) KLM
(4) Delta Airlines
 
5. Why did Alauddin Khilji introduce a market policy of fixed prices for food grains ?
(1) For better return to the farmers
(2) To ensure that consumers can directly purchase from farmers
(3) To ensure that the market price is equal to the fair price
(4) To ensure that soldiers can live comfortably with low salary
 
6. The decline of trade and commerce in North India between 7th and 10th centuries was partly due to the ?
(1) Collapse of West Roman Empire
(2) Collapse of China
(3) Collapse of South East Asia
(4) Decline in skills of Indian artisans
 
7. Which of these Sultans set up a Department of Public Works to look after building programmes ?
(1) Firoz Tughlaq
(2) Jalaluddin Tughlaq
(3) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(4) Ghiyas uddin Tughlaq
 
8. The silver Rupiya, which remained a standard currency for centuries was introduced by?
(1) Akbar
(2) Sher Shah Suri
(3) Jahangir
(4) Humayun
 
9. The “Dahsala” system developed by Raja Todar Mal was for
(1) Collection of revenue at standard rate which was valid for 10 years
(2) Measurement of land once in 10 years for fixing area of assessment
(3) Collection of revenue on the basis of average of produce and prices in the last 10 years
(4) Sharing of crop between the farmer and the State for 10 years
 
10. The class of traders who specialized in carrying bulk goods over long distances during Mughal period were called
(1) Beo paris
(2) Baniks
(3) Sarafs
(4) Banjar as
 
11. During Mughal period, approximately how much percentage of rural agricultural produce was marketed
(1) 109%
(2) 15%
(3) 20%
(4) 25%
 
12. who said the following about 18th century India, “Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world”
(1) Peter the Great, of Russia
(2) Vasco da Gama
(3) Robert Clive
(4) Dupleix, the French Governor General
 
13. Which of these Nawabs of Bengal abolished all duties on internal trade
(1) Mir Jafar
(2) Siraj-ud-Daulah
(3) Mir Qasim
(4) Nizam-ud-Daulah
 
14. The Industrial Revolution in Britain led to
(1) Increase in export of raw cotton from
(2) Increase in export of textiles from India
(3) Liberalization of textile trade with India
(4) No change in textile trade from India
 
15. In 1750, approximately how much percentage of the manufacturing goods of the world were manufactured in India
(1) 24.5%
(2) 14.5%
(3) 11.5%
(4) 9.5%
 
16. which Five Year Plan laid emphasis on heavy industry led development?
(1) Fifth
(2) Fourth
(3) Second
(4) Sixth
 
17. Which enactment deals with withdrawal of currency notes from being legal tender
(1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act
(2) Reserve Bank of India Act
(3) Banking Regulation Act
(4) Indian Paper Currency Order
 
18. which name is not associated with Green Revolution in India
(1) C. Subramaniam.
(2) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(3) Sardar Swaran Singh
(4) Norman Borlaug
 
19. Budget of the Government of India used to be presented as per tradition at 5: 30 p.m. n the Lok Sabha. In which year, was the time of presentation shifted to 11:00 a.m.
(1) 1999
(2) 2000
(3) 2010
(4) 2001
 
20. Fiscal Deficit of the Government of India is closest to
(1) Excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts
(2) Interest bearing borrowings during a financial year
(3) Excess of revenue and capital expenditure over tax revenue
(4) Accumulated public debt at the end of the financial year
 
21. The share of Central taxes to states recommended by the 14th Finance Commission
(1) 42%
(2) 36%
(3) 32.5%
(4) 29.5%
 
22. Green Revolution primarily aimed at
(1) Increasing production through redistribution of land
(2) Planned export of food grains
(3) Cash crop cultivation
(4) Increasing production of food grains through high yielding varieties
 
23. In 1991 economic reform, which policy measure was not undertaken
(1) Devaluation
(2) Shifting gold from RBI vaults overseas
(3) Demonetisation
(4) Partial convertibility of Rupee
 
24. Which policy measure has not been a part of Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation
(1) FDI in defence sector
(2) Capital account convertibility
(3) FDI in retail sector
(4) Disinvestment
 
25. Out of the following crops, Green Revolution produced maximum increase in the production
(1) Paddy
(2) Wheat
(3) Pulses
(4) Millets
 
26. What is the Minimum Support Price in Rupees per Quintal of Common Paddy announced by the Government of India for Kharif 2016-17 season?
(1) Rs 1,470
(2) Rs 1,510
(3) Rs 1,625
(4) Rs 1,650
 
27. The target growth rate of agricultural sector as per National Agricultural Policy, 2000 was in excess of
(1) 2%
(2) 2.5%
(3) 3%
(4) 4%
 
28. “Garibi Hatao” was introduced during which Five Year Plan?
(1) 4th Five Year Plan
(2) 5th Five Year Plan
(3) 6th Five Year Plan
(4) 3rd Five Year Plan
 
29. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act does not
(1) Prescribe limits for fiscal and revenue deficits
(2) Prescribe certain vision statements to be laid along with the budgets
(3) Provide for penal provisions if deficit targets are not met
(4) Apply both at Central and State level
 
30. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS)
(1) has shared funding by Central and State governments
(2) is fully funded by respective State governments
(3) is fully funded by Central government
(4) is a fully externally aided scheme
31. Industrial Policy resolution, 1977 focussed on
(1) Heavy industry
(2) Small scale and village industry
(3) Foreign Direct Investment
(4) Mining
 
32. The implementation agency for Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) is
(1) Nationalised Bank
(2) Small Industry Service Institute
(3) District Industries Centre
(4) District Employment Exchange
 
33. At present, in India, Foreign Direct Investment is completely prohibited in which sector
(1) Petroleum refining
(2) Cable networks
(3) Newspapers
(4) Chit funds
 
34. As per the present policy, what is the percentage of Foreign Direct Investment permitted in total equity for Multi-Brand Retail Trading Sector
(1) 51%
(2) 49%
(3) 26%
(4) 100%
 
35. Which of the following is not registered as a Geographical Indication in India as per details available till November, 2016
(1) Tirupati Laddu
(2) Uppada Jamdani Saree
(3) Guntur Sannam Chilli
(4) Bandaru Laddu
 
36. As per the vision of National Manufacturing Policy, 2011 how many additional jobs have to be created in the manufacturing sector by 2022
(1) 200 million
(2) 100 million
(3) 75 million
(4) 60 million
 
37. What is the mandate of MGNREGA scheme in terms of days of guaranteed wage employment for those who volunteer to work in a financial year
(1) 100 days to every adult in the village
(2) 150 days to every adult in the village
(3) 100 days to every household in the village whose adult members volunteer to work
(4) 150 days work to every household in the village whose adult members volunteer to work
 
38. Under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana, what is the annual premium to be paid by the policy holder to get accidental insurance cover?
(1) Rs. 12 exclusive of service tax
(2) Rs. 12 inclusive of service tax
(3) Rs.  330 exclusive of service tax
(4) Rs. 330 inclusive of service tax
 
39. What is the annual rate of interest recommended by the Central Board of Trustees of EPF for the financial year 2016 -17 on EPFO deposits
(1) 8.8%
(2) 8.75%
(3) 8.7%
(4) 8.65%
 
40. The Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Bill 2016, proposes to increase the maternity leave available to mothers with less than 2 surviving children from 12 weeks to ?
(1) 18 weeks
(2) 22 weeks
(3) 26 weeks
(4) 30 weeks
 
41. The upper threshold wage limit per month for an employee to avail benefits of ESI scheme is
(1) Rs. 15,000
(2) Rs. 21,000
(3) Rs. 25,000
(4) Rs. 27,000
 
42. As per the 28th QES (Quarterly Report on Changes in Employment) Report of Labour Bureau, the largest contributor to job growth in the year 2015 was
(1) IT/BPO sector
(2) Textiles & Apparels sector
(3) Metals sector
(4) Automobile sector
 
43. As per Census 2011, how much percentage rounded off to nearest integer) of ST households have walls made of burnt bricks or concrete
(1) 22%
(2) 28%
(3) 24%
(4) 25%
 
44. with what objective was CAPART established
(1) Development of supercomputers
(2) Export promotion
(3) Rural development
(4) Pollution control
 
45. As per the Agricultural Census 2010-11, the average size of operated land holdings in hectares in 2010-11 held by all classes together, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in that order are
(1) 1.15; 0.80; 1.52
(2) 1.52; 1.15; 0.80
(3) 1.52; 0.80; 1.15
(4) 1.15; 1.52; 0.80
 
46. As per the Agricultural Census, 2010-11, small and medium holdings constitute about 85% of the total number of holdings in India but the operated area of these holdings out of the total operated area is only
(1) 54.58%
(2) 44.58%
(3) 34.58%
(4) 24.58%
 
47. In its surveys, the indicator used by NSSO to measure economic inequality amongst households is
(1) Income
(2) Consumption
(3) Wealth
(4) Social status
 
48. Who was the chief guest for the 2016 Republic Day parade
(1) Barak Obama
(2) David Cameron
(3) François Hollande
(4) Shinzo Abe
 
49. The annual growth rate of real GDP of India in 2014-15 is
(1) 7.3%
(2) 7.8%
(3) 7%
(4) 7.5%
 
50. The place Aleppo which was recently in the news is located in
(1) Israel
(2) Syria
(3) Ukraine
(4) Palestine
 
51. The country which demonetised its currency after India but immediately backtracked was
(1) Colombia
(2) Venezuela.
(3) Brazil
(4) Chile
 
52. The pair of superview -1 remote sensing satellites were launched by
(1) USA.
(2) Russia
(3) France
(4) China
 
51. The theme of World Human Rights Day observed in December, 2016 was
(1) My Voice Counts
(2) our Rights, our Freedoms, Always
(3) Stand up for someone’s rights today
(4) # Rights 365
 
54. Hornbill festival is celebrated showcasing the cultural heritage of
(1) Nagaland
(2) Mizoram
(3) Manipur
(A) Meghalaya
 
55. The reason for celebrating National  Technology Day on 11th May is because on this day
(1) PARAM supercomputer was inaugurated
(2) ISRO launched its first PSLV rocket
(3) The first nuclear reactor went critical
(4) Nuclear tests were successfully conducted at Pokhran
 
56. “Santhara” is a ritual of fasting to death amongst
(1) Buddhists
(2) Jains
(3) Sufis
(4) Parsis
 
57. Magnus Carlsen, the world Chess Champion is from
(1) Sweden
(2) Canada.
(3) Norway
(4) Great Britain
 
58. FICN is the common acronym of
(1) Foreign Investor Confidence Note
(2) Federal Investigation of crimes Noticed
(3) Fake Indian Currency Note
(4) Federation of Inter Continental Nations
 
59. The share of Andhra Pradesh in Central taxes as recommended by the 14th Finance Commission is
(1) 4.305%
(2) 3.083%
(3) 2.503%
(4) 5.521%
 
60. The United Nations Convention on Climate Change held at Paris in December, 2015 agreed on
(1) Centrally determined contributions
(2) Capacity based determination
of contributions
(3) UNO determined contributions
(4) Nationally determined contributions

 

61. The proposed gravitational-wave observation project in India would be run by the consortium of research institutions known under the English acronym
(1) IndiGO
(2) ILIGO
(3) IndLIGO
(4) InIGO
 
62. National National Research Laboratory is located is near
(1) Thiruvananthapuram
(2) Chandigarh
(3) Tirupati
(4) Bengaluru
 
68. The theme of the Nobel Prize winning book, “Secondhand Time” is
(1) concept of time in Science
(2) Society and Politics of Soviet Union
(3) Management of time
(4) History of different times
 
64. The 104th Indian Science Congress was held at
(1) Chennai
(2) Tirupati
(3) Mysore
(4) Kolkata
 
65. Which of the following is not counted in Human Development Index (HDI)
(1) Per capita income
(2) Number of years of schooling
(3) Ownership of basic assets
(4) Life expectancy at birth
 
66. T.M. Krishna was awarded Magsaysay Award, 2016 for
(1) Excellence in music
(2) Public service
(3) working for world peace
(4) Ensuring social inclusiveness in culture
 
67. Out of the persons mentioned below, who is one of the founders of “Safai Andolan”
(1) Kailash Satyarthi
(2) Bezwada Wilson
(3) Bindeshwar Pathak
(4) Kamla ben Gurjar
 
68. Dilma Rousseff was in news because
(1) She won the second term as the President of Brazil
(2) She won an international award for peace
(3) She was impeached from office by the Senate
(4) She was ousted from power in a coup
 
69. After Brexit referendum results, the following did not happen in UK
(1) There was a change of Prime Minister
(2) The opposition party came to power
(3) The new Prime Minister is a lady
(4) The Home Secretary became the new Conservative leader
 
70. The referendum in Greece in June, 2015 was to decide on whether
(1) Currency should be devalued
(2) To curtail powers of the Parliament or not
(3) To leave EU or not
(4) To accept bail out conditions by EU and IMF or not
 
71. After leaving India, Vijay Mallya is hiding in a / an
(1) English village
(2) French villa
(3) Cruise ship
(4) US resort
 
72. The prize considered equivalent to Nobel Prize for Mathematics is
(1) Fields Medal
(2) Newton Medal
(3) Ramanujan Medal
(4) Pythagoras Medal
 
73. Obama Care is the
(1) Law for affordable health care
(2) Law for education for everyone
(3) Law for protection against racial violence
(4) Law for care of the shelterless
 
74. Who is the present Secretary General of the UNO
(1) Ban Ki-Moon
(2) Kofi Annan
(3) Antonio Guterres
(4) Irina Bokova
 
75. who is the Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund
(1) Christine Lagarde
(2) Joseph Stiglitz
(3) Kristalina Georgieva
(4) Jim Yong Kim
76. The present Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
(1) P.J Kurien
(2) Arun Jaitley
(3) Hamid Ansari
(4) Selja Kumari
77. The book titled “Half Lion” is about
(1) Sitaram Kesri
(2) Rajiv Gandhi
(3) P V. Narasimha Rao
(4) Manmohan Singh
78. India’s first digital village is
1) Ibrahimpur
(2) Akodara
(3) Dhasai
(4) Khan dalavadi
79. The mobile app BHIM CBharat Interface for Money is based on
(1) Central Payment Interface
(2) Local Payment Interface
(3) Unified Payment Interface
(4) World Payment Interface
80. The foundation stone for Indian Institute of Skills was laid by the Prime Minister in
(1) Allahabad
(2) Lucknow
(3) Patna
(4) Kanpur
81. Fifth India-Arab Partnership Conference was held at
(1) Dubai
(2) Muscat
(3) Qatar
(4) Riyadh
82. “UJALA” scheme launched by the Centre aims
(1) Providing electricity connection to all houses.
(2) Promoting efficient lighting by providing LED bulbs
(3) Promoting solar energy devices
(4) Providing open access for sale of power
83. Who is the Scientific Adviser to the Defence Minister?
(1) S. Christopher
(2) R. Chidambaram
(3) V. K. Saraswat
(4) G. Satheesh Reddy
84. The bronze medal of Yogeshwar Dutt in wrestling in 2012, London Olympics was upgraded to silver because the following wrestler failed the dope test
(1) Togrul Asgarov
(2) Sharif Sharifov
(3) Jake Varner
(4) Besik Kuduk hov
85. Who is the new Chief of Air Force of India 
(1) Bipin Rawat
(2) B. S. Dhanoa
(3) Sunil Lamba
(4) Arup Raha
86. The 77th session of the Indian History Congress was held at
(1) Chennai
(2) Bengaluru
(3) Thiruvananthapuram
(4) New Delhi
87. For which project, did Andhra Pradesh win the Gold award in the category of “Out standing Performance in Citizen-Centric Service Delivery” in the 20th National Conference on e-Governance held in January, 2017
(1) Aadhar-enabled PDS
(2) Loan Module
(3) State Pension Portal
(4) CORE
88. Which of the following towns in Andhra Pradesh is part of HRIDAY scheme of the Ministry of Urban Development of the Government of India
(1) Tirupati
(2) Srisailam
(3) Vijayawada
(4) Amaravati
89. The Lodha Committee report on working of BCCI
(1) Proposes ban on betting
(2) Does not deal with betting
(3) Proposes legalization of betting
(4) Proposes jail sentence for betting
90. The Badminton world Federation Most Improved Player of the Year Award for 2016 was given to
(1) P.V. Sindhu
(2) Carolina Marina
(3) Sun Yu
(4) Ayaka Takahashi
91. Who is the new Lieutenant Governor of Delhi
(1) Anil Goel
(2) Anil Baijal
(3) Vijay Goel
(4) Pradip Baijal
92. Which artist sketched the National Emblem in the original copy of the Constitution
(1) Nandlal Bose
(2) Dinanath Bhargava
(3) Jatin Das
(4) Kanu Desai
93. Who won the Sahitya Akademi Award for poetry in Telugu for 2016
(1) Papineni Sivasankar
(2) Katyayani Vidmahe
(3) R. Chandrasekhara Reddy
(4) Volga
94. What is Chiraharitae
(1) Species of deer discovered in Madhya Pradesh
(2) Long leaf plant discovered in Karnataka
(3) Termite species discovered in Kerala
(4) Butterfly species discovered in Tamil

95. Which country won the Kabaddi World cup 2016
(1) India
(2) Thailand
(3) Iran
(4) South Korea
96. The winner of the National Award for 2016 under Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Anty odaya Krishi Puraskar is
(1) Roop Singh
(2) Rajender Singh
(3) Krishna Yadav
(4) Aruna Rai
97. The farming model proposed by Subhash Palekar is
(1) Low budget organic farming
(2) Zero budget natural farming
(3) Multi-level organic farming
(4) Nature friendly organic farming

98. As stated in the Preamble to the Constitution of India, India is a
(1) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
(2) Socialist Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(3) Secular sovereign Democratic Socialist Republic
(4) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

99. How many Fundamental Duties are stated in Article 51A of the Constitution
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 12
100. In India, any violation to the right to property cannot be challenged by filing a
(1) writ under Article 226 of the Constitution
(2) Civil suit before a Court
(3) writ under Article 32 of the Constitution
(4) Case before Lok Adalat
101. According to Article 248 of the Indian Constitution, Residuary Power is vested with the
(1) Parliament
(2) States
(3) Union and States jointly
(4) President
102. How many times can a person be elected as the President of India
(1) Once
(2) No restriction
(3) Twice
(4) Two terms consecutively
103. In which case did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgement dealing with imposition of President’s Rule in the States
(1) Golaknath
(2) Maneka Gandhi
(3) Minerva Mills
(4) S R. Bommai
104. For altering the boundary of a state or for creation of a new State,
(1) Concurrence of the affected State Assembly is required
(2) views of the affected State Assembly are to be sought by the President
(3) Two-thirds majority of the affected State Assembly is required
(4) Affected State has to make a recommendation to the Lok Sabha
105. Which one of the following writs can be filed against a private person also
(1) Quo warranto
(2) Certiorari
(3) Habeas Corpus
(4) Mandamus
106. The day which is celebrated as the Constitution day in India is
(1) January 26
(2) January 30
(3) August 15
(4) November 26
107. Which one of the following does not indicate a prominent federal feature of the Indian State
(1) Allocation of financial resources
(2) Independent judiciary
(3) Supremacy of the Constitution
(4) Distribution of powers
108. In the words of K. C. Wheare, a constitutional expert, India is
(1) a cooperative federation
(2) a quasi-federation
(3) a strong union
(4) not a federation
109. In which year, did the right to education come into force as a fundamental right?
(1) 2001
(2) 2002
(3) 2009
(4) 2010
110. The reason for the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament being headed by a
member of the opposition party in the Lok Sabha is
(1) Rules framed by the Government
(2) Convention
(3) Rules of Procedure of Parliament
(4) Presidential order
111. How many members are from the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha respectively in the Parliamentary Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(1) 15, 15
(2) 15, 10
(3) 20, 10
(4) 10, 10
112. The Model Code of Conduct for elections is issued by the Election Commission as per
(1) Rules in the Constitution
(2) Rules in the Indian Penal Code
(3) Issued for voluntary compliance
(4) Rules laid down in the Peoples Representation Act
113. President’s Rule is declared under which Article of the Constitution?
(1) Article 356
(2) Article 358
(3) Article 360
(4) Article 352
114. Article 32 of the Constitution
(1) can be amended with simple majority
(2) Cannot be amended
(3) Can be amended with two-thirds majority
(4) can be amended with ratification by the States

115. Which of these Fundamental Rights is available only to a citizen of India
(1) Rights under Article 19
(2) Rights under Article 25
(3) Rights under Article 21
(4) Rights under Article 14
116. It is believed that Fundamental Duties have been introduced in the Constitution upon recommendation by this Committee
(1) Swaran Singh Committee
(2) Narasimha Rao Committee
(3) Chavan Committee
(4) Buta Singh Committee
117. Decisions of Inter State Council are taken by
(1) Consensus
(2) Simple majority from the members present
(3) Two-thirds majority from the members present
(4) Three-fourths majority from the members present
118. Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are adopted on the lines of the Constitution of
(1) Germany
(2) USSR
(3) Ireland
(4) Canada
119. In the case of Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association, which of the following judges upheld the Constitutional Amendment for creation of National Judicial Appointments Council
(1) Justice J.S. Khehar
(2) Justice M. B. Lokur
(3) Justice J. Chelameswar
(4) Justice Kurian Joseph
120. As recommended by Justice M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State relations, the Governor of a State shall have
(1) a tenure fixed for 3 years
(2) no fixed tenure
(3) a tenure determined by the State Assembly
(4) a tenure fixed for 5 years

121. The following is not one of the Directive Principles in the Constitution
(1) Increasing international trade
(2) Prohibition of cow slaughter
(3) Equal pay for equal work of men and women
(4) Separation of Judiciary from Executive

122. Which Article of the Directive Principles of the Constitution mentions about empowering Village Panchayats
(1) Article 38
(2) Article 39
(3) Article 40
(4) Article 41
123. Who circulated a questionnaire on Uniform Civil Code in October, 2016 to solicit opinions from the public at large
(1) Ministry of Law and Justice
(2) National Commission for Minorities
(3) National Human Rights Commission
(4) National Law Commission
124. As per the Constitution, a Union Minister shall hold office during pleasure of the
(1) Prime Minister
(2) President of Ruling party
(3) President
(4) Leader of the House
125. As per the Constitution, the Council of Union Ministers is collectively responsible to
(1) Both the Houses of Parliament
(2) The President
(3) The Ruling Party
(4) The Lok Sabha
126. In which category was Sachin Tendulkar nominated as the member of the Rajya Sabha
(1) Literature
(2) Arts
(3) Science
(4) Social Service
127. whose decision is final in deciding whether a bill is a money bill or not?
(1) The President
(2) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(3) The Finance Minister
(4) The Supreme Court
128. Collegium system of appointment of Supreme Court Judges derives sanction from
(1) The Constitution
(2) Consent of Government
(3) Decisions of Supreme Court
(4) President of India
129. If a bill is introduced in the the Council of the State and sent to  Legislative Assembly for approval but if the Legislative Assembly rejects the bill, what is the next course of action?
(1) Joint sitting of both the Houses
(2) Council may send the bill back to the Assembly for reconsideration
(3) Bill may be sent to the Governor for examination
(4) The fate of the bill ends
130. The total number of ministers including the Chief Minister in a State shall not be less than
(1) 12
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 7
131. The remuneration of an Advocate General would be
(1) Equal to that of a High Court Judge
(2) As determined by the Governor
(3) Equal to that of the Chief Secretary of the State
(4) Equal to that of the Cabinet Minister of the State

132. As per Article 243 of the Constitution, the following would be the members of “Gram Sabha “
(1) All adults with age of 18 years and above in the Panchayat area
(2) All voters as per electoral rolls relating to the Panchayat area
(3) All citizens residing in the Panchayat
(4) All persons allowed by the Gram Panchayat

133. As per the recommendations of the 14th Finance Commission, the proportion of basic grant a performance grant out of the total grant to a duly constituted Panchayat would be in the ratio of
(1) 70 : 30
(2) 80 : 20
(3) 90 : 10
(4) 75 : 25
134. The percentage of distribution of revenue from taxes between the Centre and the States is recommended by the
(1) Finance Commission
(2) NITI Aayog
(3) Inter State Council
(4) National Development Council
135. The maximum limit placed by the Constitution on levy per annum of Profession Tax is
(1) Rs.  5,000
(2) Rs. 2,500
(3) Rs.  1,250
(4) Rs.  2,000
136. Match the following Articles with the corresponding States
A. Article 371A.            P. Assam
B. Article 371B             Q. Nagaland.
C. Article 37iC.              R. Manipur
D. Article 371F.             S. Mizoram.
E. Article 371G.             T. Sikkim
(1) AP, BQ, CR, DS, ET
(2) AP, BT, CQ, DS, ER
(3) AQ, BP, CR, DT, ES
(4) AR, BQ, CP, DT, ES
137. As per the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, how many members shall be there in Tribes Advisory Council be constituted by a State
(1) Up to 10
(2) Upto 20
(3) Up to 25
(4) Upto 50
138. The regulations with regard for peace and good government in a Scheduled Area would be issued by
(1) The President
(2) The Parliament
(3) The State Assembly
(4) The Governor
139. Who can alter the boundary of a Scheduled Area
(1) The President
(2) The Parliament
(3) The Governor
(4) The State Assembly
140. An autonomous region is
(1) A federation of autonomous districts
(2) An autonomous unit within an autonomous district
(3) A block of 3 autonomous districts
(4) An autonomous district
141. Even during Emergency, the following rights cannot be suspended
(1) Right under Article 21
(2) Right under Article 19
(3) Right under Article 14
(4) Right under Article 22
142. What is the amount of grant-in-aid recommended by the 14th Finance Commission to the Panchayats during 2015 -2020
(1) Rs. 250,292.20 Cr
(2) Rs. 300,292.20 Cr
(3) Rs. 200,292.20 Cr
(4) Rs. 275,292.20 Cr
143. Cultivation of opium is an item in the
(1) Union List
(2) State List
(3) Concurrent List
(4) Residuary item
144. The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is limited by the
(1) Supreme Court
(2) Civil Society
(3) States
(4) Constitution
145. Which Article of the Constitution directs to provide instruction in mother tongue at the primary education stage to the children of linguistic minority groups?
(1) Article 350A
(2) Article 300A
(3) Article 351A
(4) Article 301A
146. The power of Judicial Review is exercised by the Supreme Court through which Article of the Constitution
(1) Article 131
(2) Article 132
(3) Article 32
(4) Article 134
147. As per Article 164 of the constitution, a Minister for Tribal Welfare is compulsory for which State
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Himachal Pradesh
148. The aim of Pradhan Mantri Uijwala Yojana is
(1) Improve coverage of rural electrification
(2) Impart skills to girl child
(3) Improve female literacy
(4) Provide LPG connections to BPL households

149. Who chaired the 27th Southern Zonal Council Meeting held at Thiruvananthapuram on 28th December, 2016
(1) Pinarayi Vijayan
(2) Rajnath Singh
(3) Arun Jaitley
(4) Kiran Bedi
150. Arrange the countries in descending order according to total medals won in the latest Olympics?
(1) USA, Great Britain, China, Russia
(2) USA, China, Great Britain, Russia
(3) USA, Russia, Great Britain, China,
(4) Russia, Great Britain, USA, China
Check below for Answers:

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